04-06-2011, 11:24 PM
(04-06-2011, 11:12 PM)Freshbait78 Wrote:(04-06-2011, 11:01 PM)kitty1 Wrote: Now I'm confused about something else. I can't believe out of all these fuckin pages and posts that this never occured to me. Maybe someone already discussed it and I'm having a brain malfunction.
If family was present since the first call, then why would coroner place time of death from 11 to 3am? The family was present from probably 1:45 until bodies were discovered. To me that would mean that they had to have been killed before the first call. They had to have been killed before that time. Right? What am I not understanding here? we have discussed these calls a thousand times...so why do I see them differently now? That would be freshbait thank you! It seems too obvious that the timeline is fucked up. Now I'm gonna feel like a real ass if someone gets on here and says "I said that about 500 pages ago dumbass" It is just too much detail for this old Kitty to keep straight God Damnit!
Don't feel bad. I had one of those moments last week about the safe & Verbosky being certain that the perps were there for the safe
IMO I believe they were dead before the 1st 911 call So sometime between 11pm - 1am. I think the coroner stating that they had taken the pills a FEW hours before death got me to thinking about the time line.
I think that the coroner states the time of death based soley on his assessment of the body exclusive of facts, phone calls, etc. The coroner still places the time of death within the range we are thinking. I think that Lisa took the drugs at work and Johnny took the drugs at the party. Just like in the game of "Clue".. I am ready to make my accusation.