04-06-2011, 11:25 PM
(04-06-2011, 11:01 PM)kitty1 Wrote: Now I'm confused about something else. I can't believe out of all these fuckin pages and posts that this never occured to me. Maybe someone already discussed it and I'm having a brain malfunction.
If family was present since the first call, then why would coroner place time of death from 11 to 3am? The family was present from probably 1:45 until bodies were discovered. To me that would mean that they had to have been killed before the first call. They had to have been killed before that time. Right? What am I not understanding here? we have discussed these calls a thousand times...so why do I see them differently now? That would be freshbait thank you! It seems too obvious that the timeline is fucked up. Now I'm gonna feel like a real ass if someone gets on here and says "I said that about 500 pages ago dumbass" It is just too much detail for this old Kitty to keep straight God Damnit!
It was more than 500 pages ago........it first appears on page 269
- netsleuth - 02-17-2011 08:02 PM
Question on time of death. How can the time of death be between 1-4 am when the police arrived at about 1? Unless I remember the TOD incorrectly? Which ... is entirely possible. Anyone know?